Sexual deviancy, specifically the paraphilia of violent sexual fantasies involving children, turns to probable murder when the person who is experiencing said fantasies’ thoughts become actions, and the opportunistic child victim of those fantasies has been missing for a long period of time say, more than 4 years. Now could we stop dealing in semantics please?
It turns to probable murder when it does BO... there's no time period I'm aware of. There is something here i am not getting that you guys are, so just relax, i wasn't playing with semantics intentionally. I'm open to anything... I can't understand why it may upset you, but that's ok. I just didn't really get @Thebottomline 's question... "when does sexual deviancy turn to probable murder"? It's an open ended question with hundreds of permeations and so open to conjecture and whatnot. Just be comfortable with the fact that i didn't really get the question - and that should be ok too, as no-one really knows the answer