- Dec 1, 2008
- Reaction score
Yes that is my understanding but his guardianship is to determine her incapacity - why wouldn’t he just use a durable power of attorney which is routine in married couples ? IMO it’s because he no longer had it and this is the only way he can convey title to the buyer because that property is owned jointly - we do real estate tooI'm thinking it could just be that BM needs the courts approval to sign documents that would normally require both their signatures for a property transfer. If he is appointed her guardian, he can sign on her behalf.