Holdontoyourhat
Former Member
- Joined
- Mar 28, 2005
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DNA doesn't "move" but it can get transferred from one surface to another. That is how "touch" DNA is recovered in the first place. Skin cells rub off when they come into contact with something.
Here's a F'irinstance.
IF one of her parents shook hands with the male donor at the White's (or touched something the male donor had touched) some of the donor DNA transferred to the parent(s) hands. When they pulled the longjonhns and panties on some of the skin cells got on those items.
JB herself could also have touched those same surfaces at the White's, including toilet handles and surfaces. This could explain the lonhjohns, but not the panties unless she wore those huge size 12s to the White's (as Patsy suggested) but I don't think she did.
I am baffled as to how IDI repeatedly refuses to accept the FACT that the autopsy DID indicate prior abuse. There were bruises and contusions that were NOT from the time of death (because they were in various stages of healing) as well as an eroded hymen (which could not have happened from ONE incident). Yet, you persist in claiming there is no indication of prior abuse. As much as you might hope it, the autopsy is not RDI spin. It is fact and that is that.
I think this is a plausible innocent explanation. They probably havent checked DNA from everybody at the Whites, nor sampled surfaces at the Whites. I'll bet they didn't sample JR or PR's hands but they probably did sample JBR's hands.
Innocent stranger DNA-->JR's or PR's hands-->longjohns & underwear
Innocent stranger DNA-->Unknown surface-->JBR's hands-->longjohns & underwear
However both of these scenarios seem to be assuming that the DNA found within a blood spot is a mere coincidence. Is there a innocent explanation for DNA transfer that would result in DNA mixed with the blood spot?