Seek&Find
Former Member
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- Jan 27, 2011
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Why? You haven't told me any of the passages from Greek that are so unambiguous.
The only one that comes to mind is Paul's letter to the Romans that complains of men have sex with men and women having sex with women against their natures. Read literally, it seems to be a criticism of sexual experimentation that has nothing to do with gay people who act according to their natures.
But then some Christians only read the Bible literally when it suits them. It's unlikely that Paul knew of gay people, since the concept didn't really exist in his time. If he had known there were people with an innate attraction to their own sex, who knows what he might have said?
Whether homosexuality is part of one's nature is still debated. Those who believe in the Bible as God's word consider it to be written by the Holy Spirit through men. God was certainly aware of LGBT acts and people.