Just had a minute to check in to see any new updates, and I downloaded the arrest warrant/affidavit that was linked to upthread..
I wanted to hear others opinions on the part of the warrant speaking about the death was caused by stabbing and cutting the victim "with an unknown object".. Did this strike anyone else as odd?.. It may just be me, but I'm thinking back on the multitude of arrest warrants I've read over the years, and honestly there have been cases where the actual weapon used to inflict a stabbing death has been missing, not located by LE after the crime was committed.. But even still in the warrants/affidavits it has stated such things as, a single blade weapon was used to inflict the fatal stab wounds on the victim.. Or a serrated blade was used to inflict the cuts/stabs on the victim..or double edge blade was used, etc, etc..and/or a myriad of other such descriptors regarding the weapon used in a murder..
So, as I said, while it is not at all unusual for a perpetrator to take with them the murder weapon and hide, destroy, conceal it thus leaving no murder weapon behind to be found by investigators..nonetheless even without having the actual weapon that inflicted the lethal wounds on a victim..they do however still use various different ways of describing the weapon used in court docs such as warrants/affidavits..
So, that's why I guess I find it a bit odd that here we have a warrant/affidavit that states, the death was caused by stabbing and cutting the victim with an unknown object.
What are others thoughts/opinions on this particular detail?
TiA to anyone who has any thoughts on this one way or another(as in, even if they see , or interpret this differently than I do)